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| | PIK3CA | Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit alpha isoform; Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns (Phosphatidylinositol), PtdIns4P (Phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate) and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Participates in cellular signaling in response to v [...] (1068 aa) |
| | CD4 | T-cell surface glycoprotein CD4; Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class II molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class II peptides are derived from extracellular proteins while class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class II presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Src kina [...] (458 aa) |
| | YTHDC2 | 3'-5' RNA helicase YTHDC2; 3'-5' RNA helicase that plays a key role in the male and female germline by promoting transition from mitotic to meiotic divisions in stem cells. Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs, a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non- coding RNAs that plays a role in the efficiency of RNA processing and stability. Essential for ensuring a successful progression of the meiotic program in the germline by regulating the level of m6A-containing RNAs (By similarity). Acts by binding and promoting degradation of m6 [...] (1430 aa) |
| | MZF1 | Myeloid zinc finger 1; Binds to target promoter DNA and functions as transcription regulator. Regulates transcription from the PADI1 and CDH2 promoter. May be one regulator of transcriptional events during hemopoietic development; Belongs to the krueppel C2H2-type zinc-finger protein family. (734 aa) |
| | EIF3D | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit D; mRNA cap-binding component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, a complex required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis of a specialized repertoire of mRNAs. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required f [...] (548 aa) |
| | ALKBH1 | Nucleic acid dioxygenase ALKBH1; Dioxygenase that acts as on nucleic acids, such as DNA and tRNA. Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron. A number of activities have been described for this dioxygenase, but recent results suggest that it mainly acts as on tRNAs and mediates their demethylation or oxidation depending on the context and subcellular compartment. Mainly acts as a tRNA demethylase by removing N(1)-methyladenine from various tRNAs, with a preference for N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) present on a stem loop structure of tRNAs. Acts as a regulator o [...] (389 aa) |
| | EIF5 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5; Catalyzes the hydrolysis of GTP bound to the 40S ribosomal initiation complex (40S.mRNA.Met-tRNA[F].eIF-2.GTP) with the subsequent joining of a 60S ribosomal subunit resulting in the release of eIF-2 and the guanine nucleotide. The subsequent joining of a 60S ribosomal subunit results in the formation of a functional 80S initiation complex (80S.mRNA.Met-tRNA[F]). (431 aa) |
| | EIF3E | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit E; Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribos [...] (445 aa) |
| | RPS6KB1 | Ribosomal protein S6 kinase beta-1; Serine/threonine-protein kinase that acts downstream of mTOR signaling in response to growth factors and nutrients to promote cell proliferation, cell growth and cell cycle progression. Regulates protein synthesis through phosphorylation of EIF4B, RPS6 and EEF2K, and contributes to cell survival by repressing the pro-apoptotic function of BAD. Under conditions of nutrient depletion, the inactive form associates with the EIF3 translation initiation complex. Upon mitogenic stimulation, phosphorylation by the mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1 (mTO [...] (525 aa) |
| | CCND1 | G1/S-specific cyclin-D1; Regulatory component of the cyclin D1-CDK4 (DC) complex that phosphorylates and inhibits members of the retinoblastoma (RB) protein family including RB1 and regulates the cell-cycle during G(1)/S transition. Phosphorylation of RB1 allows dissociation of the transcription factor E2F from the RB/E2F complex and the subsequent transcription of E2F target genes which are responsible for the progression through the G(1) phase. Hypophosphorylates RB1 in early G(1) phase. Cyclin D-CDK4 complexes are major integrators of various mitogenenic and antimitogenic signals. A [...] (295 aa) |
| | GLI1 | Zinc finger protein GLI1; Acts as a transcriptional activator. Binds to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-GACCACCCA-3'. Regulates the transcription of specific genes during normal development. Plays a role in craniofacial development and digital development, as well as development of the central nervous system and gastrointestinal tract. Mediates SHH signaling. Plays a role in cell proliferation and differentiation via its role in SHH signaling. Belongs to the GLI C2H2-type zinc-finger protein family. (1106 aa) |
| | NANOG | Homeobox protein NANOG; Transcription regulator involved in inner cell mass and embryonic stem (ES) cells proliferation and self-renewal. Imposes pluripotency on ES cells and prevents their differentiation towards extraembryonic endoderm and trophectoderm lineages. Blocks bone morphogenetic protein-induced mesoderm differentiation of ES cells by physically interacting with SMAD1 and interfering with the recruitment of coactivators to the active SMAD transcriptional complexes. Acts as a transcriptional activator or repressor. Binds optimally to the DNA consensus sequence 5'-TAAT[GT][GT] [...] (305 aa) |
| | SOX4 | Transcription factor SOX-4; Transcriptional activator that binds with high affinity to the T-cell enhancer motif 5'-AACAAAG-3' motif. (474 aa) |
| | EIF2S3 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 3; As a subunit of eukaryotic initiation factor 2 (eIF2), involved in the early steps of protein synthesis. In the presence of GTP, eIF2 forms a ternary complex with initiator tRNA Met-tRNAi and then recruits the 40S ribosomal complex, a step that determines the rate of protein translation. This step is followed by mRNA binding to form the 43S pre-initiation complex. Junction of the 60S ribosomal subunit to form the 80S initiation complex is preceded by hydrolysis of the GTP bound to eIF2 and release of an eIF2-GDP binary complex. In o [...] (472 aa) |
| | EIF2S1 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 1; Functions in the early steps of protein synthesis by forming a ternary complex with GTP and initiator tRNA. This complex binds to a 40S ribosomal subunit, followed by mRNA binding to form a 43S pre- initiation complex. Junction of the 60S ribosomal subunit to form the 80S initiation complex is preceded by hydrolysis of the GTP bound to eIF-2 and release of an eIF-2-GDP binary complex. In order for eIF-2 to recycle and catalyze another round of initiation, the GDP bound to eIF- 2 must exchange with GTP by way of a reaction catalyzed [...] (315 aa) |
| | LAMTOR5 | Ragulator complex protein LAMTOR5; As part of the Ragulator complex it is involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Activated by amino acids through a mechanism involving the lysosomal V- ATPase, the Ragulator functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPases Rag. Activated Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated. When complexed to BIRC5, interferes with apoptosome assem [...] (173 aa) |
| | ADAM19 | Disintegrin and metalloproteinase domain-containing protein 19; Participates in the proteolytic processing of beta-type neuregulin isoforms which are involved in neurogenesis and synaptogenesis, suggesting a regulatory role in glial cell. Also cleaves alpha-2 macroglobulin. May be involved in osteoblast differentiation and/or osteoblast activity in bone (By similarity). (918 aa) |
| | NAT10 | RNA cytidine acetyltransferase; RNA cytidine acetyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of N(4)-acetylcytidine (ac4C) modification on mRNAs, 18S rRNA and tRNAs. Catalyzes ac4C modification of a broad range of mRNAs, enhancing mRNA stability and translation. mRNA ac4C modification is frequently present within wobble cytidine sites and promotes translation efficiency. Mediates the formation of ac4C at position 1842 in 18S rRNA. May also catalyze the formation of ac4C at position 1337 in 18S rRNA (By similarity). Required for early nucleolar cleavages of precursor rRNA at sites A0, A1 [...] (1025 aa) |
| | METTL16 | RNA N6-adenosine-methyltransferase METTL16; RNA N6-methyltransferase that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of a subset of RNAs and is involved in S-adenosyl- L-methionine homeostasis by regulating expression of MAT2A transcripts. Able to N6- methylate a subset of mRNAs and U6 small nuclear RNAs (U6 snRNAs). In contrast to the METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer, only able to methylate a limited number of RNAs: requires both a 5'UACAGAGAA-3' nonamer sequence and a specific RNA structure. Plays a key role in S-adenosyl-L-methionine homeostasis by mediating N6-methylation of MAT2 [...] (562 aa) |
| | NSUN2 | RNA cytosine C(5)-methyltransferase NSUN2; RNA cytosine C(5)-methyltransferase that methylates cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) in various RNAs, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and some long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs). Involved in various processes, such as epidermal stem cell differentiation, testis differentiation and maternal to zygotic transition during early development: acts by increasing protein synthesis; cytosine C(5)-methylation promoting tRNA stability and preventing mRNA decay. Methylates cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) at positions 34 and 48 of intron- containing tRNA(Leu)(CAA) p [...] (767 aa) |
| | EIF4H | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4H; Stimulates the RNA helicase activity of EIF4A in the translation initiation complex. Binds weakly mRNA. (248 aa) |
| | TP53 | Cellular tumor antigen p53; Acts as a tumor suppressor in many tumor types; induces growth arrest or apoptosis depending on the physiological circumstances and cell type. Involved in cell cycle regulation as a trans-activator that acts to negatively regulate cell division by controlling a set of genes required for this process. One of the activated genes is an inhibitor of cyclin-dependent kinases. Apoptosis induction seems to be mediated either by stimulation of BAX and FAS antigen expression, or by repression of Bcl-2 expression. Its pro-apoptotic activity is activated via its intera [...] (393 aa) |
| | PGD | 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase, decarboxylating; Catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of 6-phosphogluconate to ribulose 5-phosphate and CO(2), with concomitant reduction of NADP to NADPH. (483 aa) |
| | RASA1 | Ras GTPase-activating protein 1; Inhibitory regulator of the Ras-cyclic AMP pathway. Stimulates the GTPase of normal but not oncogenic Ras p21; this stimulation may be further increased in the presence of NCK1. (1047 aa) |
| | EGFR | Epidermal growth factor receptor; Receptor tyrosine kinase binding ligands of the EGF family and activating several signaling cascades to convert extracellular cues into appropriate cellular responses. Known ligands include EGF, TGFA/TGF-alpha, AREG, epigen/EPGN, BTC/betacellulin, epiregulin/EREG and HBEGF/heparin- binding EGF. Ligand binding triggers receptor homo- and/or heterodimerization and autophosphorylation on key cytoplasmic residues. The phosphorylated receptor recruits adapter proteins like GRB2 which in turn activates complex downstream signaling cascades. Activates at leas [...] (1210 aa) |
| | RPS3 | 40S ribosomal protein S3; Involved in translation as a component of the 40S small ribosomal subunit. Has endonuclease activity and plays a role in repair of damaged DNA. Cleaves phosphodiester bonds of DNAs containing altered bases with broad specificity and cleaves supercoiled DNA more efficiently than relaxed DNA. Displays high binding affinity for 7,8-dihydro- 8-oxoguanine (8-oxoG), a common DNA lesion caused by reactive oxygen species (ROS). Has also been shown to bind with similar affinity to intact and damaged DNA. Stimulates the N-glycosylase activity of the base excision protei [...] (259 aa) |
| | ZSCAN1 | Zinc finger and SCAN domain-containing protein 1; May be involved in transcriptional regulation. (408 aa) |
| | EIF5B | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5B; Plays a role in translation initiation. Translational GTPase that catalyzes the joining of the 40S and 60S subunits to form the 80S initiation complex with the initiator methionine-tRNA in the P-site base paired to the start codon. GTP binding and hydrolysis induces conformational changes in the enzyme that renders it active for productive interactions with the ribosome. The release of the enzyme after formation of the initiation complex is a prerequisite to form elongation-competent ribosomes. (1220 aa) |
| | EIF5A2 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A-2; mRNA-binding protein involved in translation elongation. Has an important function at the level of mRNA turnover, probably acting downstream of decapping. Involved in actin dynamics and cell cycle progression, mRNA decay and probably in a pathway involved in stress response and maintenance of cell wall integrity. Functions as a regulator of apoptosis. Mediates effects of polyamines on neuronal process extension and survival. May play an important role in brain development and function, and in skeletal muscle stem cell differentiation (By s [...] (153 aa) |
| | SHH | Sonic hedgehog protein N-product; [Sonic hedgehog protein]: The C-terminal part of the sonic hedgehog protein precursor displays an autoproteolysis and a cholesterol transferase activity (By similarity). Both activities result in the cleavage of the full-length protein into two parts (ShhN and ShhC) followed by the covalent attachment of a cholesterol moiety to the C-terminal of the newly generated ShhN (By similarity). Both activities occur in the reticulum endoplasmic (By similarity). Once cleaved, ShhC is degraded in the endoplasmic reticulum (By similarity). (462 aa) |
| | METTL3 | N6-adenosine-methyltransferase catalytic subunit; The METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer forms a N6-methyltransferase complex that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of some RNAs and regulates various processes such as the circadian clock, differentiation of embryonic and hematopoietic stem cells, cortical neurogenesis, response to DNA damage, differentiation of T-cells and primary miRNA processing. In the heterodimer formed with METTL14, METTL3 constitutes the catalytic core. N6- methyladenosine (m6A), which takes place at the 5'-[AG]GAC-3' consensus sites of some mRNAs, plays [...] (580 aa) |
| | RPS6KB2 | Ribosomal protein S6 kinase beta-2; Phosphorylates specifically ribosomal protein S6. Seems to act downstream of mTOR signaling in response to growth factors and nutrients to promote cell proliferation, cell growth and cell cycle progression in an alternative pathway regulated by MEAK7 ; Belongs to the protein kinase superfamily. AGC Ser/Thr protein kinase family. S6 kinase subfamily. (482 aa) |
| | NSUN5 | Probable 28S rRNA (cytosine-C(5))-methyltransferase; S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C(5) position of cytosine 3782 in 28S rRNA. (470 aa) |
| | PABPC1 | Polyadenylate-binding protein 1; Binds the poly(A) tail of mRNA, including that of its own transcript, and regulates processes of mRNA metabolism such as pre-mRNA splicing and mRNA stability. Its function in translational initiation regulation can either be enhanced by PAIP1 or repressed by PAIP2. Can probably bind to cytoplasmic RNA sequences other than poly(A) in vivo. Involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA-binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region deter [...] (636 aa) |
| | NSUN3 | tRNA (cytosine(34)-C(5))-methyltransferase, mitochondrial; Mitochondrial tRNA methyltransferase that mediates methylation of cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) at position 34 of mt- tRNA(Met). mt- tRNA(Met) methylation at cytosine(34) takes place at the wobble position of the anticodon and initiates the formation of 5- formylcytosine (f(5)c) at this position. mt-tRNA(Met) containing the f(5)c modification at the wobble position enables recognition of the AUA codon in addition to the AUG codon, expanding codon recognition in mitochondrial translation. Belongs to the class I-like SAM-bin [...] (340 aa) |
| | NQO1 | NAD(P)H dehydrogenase [quinone] 1; The enzyme apparently serves as a quinone reductase in connection with conjugation reactions of hydroquinons involved in detoxification pathways as well as in biosynthetic processes such as the vitamin K-dependent gamma-carboxylation of glutamate residues in prothrombin synthesis. (274 aa) |
| | SOX2 | Transcription factor SOX-2; Transcription factor that forms a trimeric complex with OCT4 on DNA and controls the expression of a number of genes involved in embryonic development such as YES1, FGF4, UTF1 and ZFP206 (By similarity). Binds to the proximal enhancer region of NANOG (By similarity). Critical for early embryogenesis and for embryonic stem cell pluripotency. Downstream SRRT target that mediates the promotion of neural stem cell self-renewal (By similarity). Keeps neural cells undifferentiated by counteracting the activity of proneural proteins and suppresses neuronal differen [...] (317 aa) |
| | PUS10 | Putative tRNA pseudouridine synthase Pus10; Pseudouridylate synthases catalyze pseudouridination of structural RNAs, including transfer, ribosomal, and splicing RNAs. PUS10 catalyzes the formation of the universal psi55 in the GC loop of transfer RNAs (Probable). Modulator of TRAIL-induced cell death via activation of procaspase 8 and BID cleavage. Required for the progression of the apoptotic signal through intrinsic mitochondrial cell death. (529 aa) |
| | EIF3C | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit C; Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribos [...] (913 aa) |
| | BCL9L | B-cell CLL/lymphoma 9-like protein; Transcriptional regulator that acts as an activator. Promotes beta-catenin transcriptional activity. Plays a role in tumorigenesis. Enhances the neoplastic transforming activity of CTNNB1 (By similarity); Belongs to the BCL9 family. (1499 aa) |
| | EIF5A | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A-1; mRNA-binding protein involved in translation elongation. Has an important function at the level of mRNA turnover, probably acting downstream of decapping. Involved in actin dynamics and cell cycle progression, mRNA decay and probably in a pathway involved in stress response and maintenance of cell wall integrity. With syntenin SDCBP, functions as a regulator of p53/TP53 and p53/TP53-dependent apoptosis. Regulates also TNF-alpha-mediated apoptosis. Mediates effects of polyamines on neuronal process extension and survival. May play an import [...] (184 aa) |
| | ATF4 | Cyclic AMP-dependent transcription factor ATF-4; Transcriptional activator. Binds the cAMP response element (CRE) (consensus: 5'-GTGACGT[AC][AG]-3'), a sequence present in many viral and cellular promoters. Cooperates with FOXO1 in osteoblasts to regulate glucose homeostasis through suppression of beta-cell production and decrease in insulin production (By similarity). It binds to a Tax-responsive enhancer element in the long terminal repeat of HTLV-I. Regulates the induction of DDIT3/CHOP and asparagine synthetase (ASNS) in response to endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress. In concert wit [...] (351 aa) |
| | MYB | Transcriptional activator Myb; Transcriptional activator; DNA-binding protein that specifically recognize the sequence 5'-YAAC[GT]G-3'. Plays an important role in the control of proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic progenitor cells. (761 aa) |
| | EIF4EBP1 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E-binding protein 1; Repressor of translation initiation that regulates EIF4E activity by preventing its assembly into the eIF4F complex: hypophosphorylated form competes with EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and strongly binds to EIF4E, leading to repress translation. In contrast, hyperphosphorylated form dissociates from EIF4E, allowing interaction between EIF4G1/EIF4G3 and EIF4E, leading to initiation of translation. Mediates the regulation of protein translation by hormones, growth factors and other stimuli that signal through the MAP kinase and mTORC1 pathways. (118 aa) |
| | FOXM1 | Forkhead box protein M1; Transcriptional factor regulating the expression of cell cycle genes essential for DNA replication and mitosis. Plays a role in the control of cell proliferation. Plays also a role in DNA breaks repair participating in the DNA damage checkpoint response. (801 aa) |
| | E2F1 | Transcription factor E2F1; Transcription activator that binds DNA cooperatively with DP proteins through the E2 recognition site, 5'-TTTC[CG]CGC-3' found in the promoter region of a number of genes whose products are involved in cell cycle regulation or in DNA replication. The DRTF1/E2F complex functions in the control of cell-cycle progression from G1 to S phase. E2F1 binds preferentially RB1 in a cell-cycle dependent manner. It can mediate both cell proliferation and TP53/p53-dependent apoptosis. Blocks adipocyte differentiation by binding to specific promoters repressing CEBPA bindi [...] (437 aa) |
| | SPRED2 | Sprouty-related, EVH1 domain-containing protein 2; Negatively regulates Ras signaling pathways and downstream activation of MAP kinases. (418 aa) |
| | WTAP | Pre-mRNA-splicing regulator WTAP; Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Required for accumulation of METTL3 and METTL14 to nuclear speckle. Acts as a mRNA splicing regulator. Regulates G2/M cell-cycle transition by binding to the 3' UTR of CCNA2, which enhances its stability. Impairs WT1 DNA-binding ability and inhibits expression of WT1 target genes. (396 aa) |
| | EIF3B | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit B; RNA-binding component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl-tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre- initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termi [...] (814 aa) |
| | MTOR | Serine/threonine-protein kinase mTOR; Serine/threonine protein kinase which is a central regulator of cellular metabolism, growth and survival in response to hormones, growth factors, nutrients, energy and stress signals. MTOR directly or indirectly regulates the phosphorylation of at least 800 proteins. Functions as part of 2 structurally and functionally distinct signaling complexes mTORC1 and mTORC2 (mTOR complex 1 and 2). Activated mTORC1 up-regulates protein synthesis by phosphorylating key regulators of mRNA translation and ribosome synthesis. This includes phosphorylation of EIF [...] (2549 aa) |
| | BECN1 | Beclin-1-C 35 kDa; Plays a central role in autophagy. Acts as core subunit of the PI3K complex that mediates formation of phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate; different complex forms are believed to play a role in multiple membrane trafficking pathways: PI3KC3-C1 is involved in initiation of autophagosomes and PI3KC3-C2 in maturation of autophagosomes and endocytosis. Involved in regulation of degradative endocytic trafficking and required for the abcission step in cytokinesis, probably in the context of PI3KC3-C2. Essential for the formation of PI3KC3-C2 but not PI3KC3-C1 PI3K complex fo [...] (450 aa) |
| | RABIF | Guanine nucleotide exchange factor MSS4; Guanine-nucleotide-releasing protein that acts on members of the SEC4/YPT1/RAB subfamily. Stimulates GDP release from both YPT1 and RAB3A, but is less active on these proteins than on the SEC4 protein. Might play a general role in vesicular transport; Belongs to the DSS4/MSS4 family. (123 aa) |
| | HDGF | Hepatoma-derived growth factor; [Isoform 1]: Acts as a transcriptional repressor. Has mitogenic activity for fibroblasts. Heparin-binding protein. [Isoform 3]: Has mitogenic activity for fibroblasts. Heparin-binding protein. Belongs to the HDGF family. (256 aa) |
| | BNIP3 | BCL2/adenovirus E1B 19 kDa protein-interacting protein 3; Apoptosis-inducing protein that can overcome BCL2 suppression. May play a role in repartitioning calcium between the two major intracellular calcium stores in association with BCL2. Involved in mitochondrial quality control via its interaction with SPATA18/MIEAP: in response to mitochondrial damage, participates in mitochondrial protein catabolic process (also named MALM) leading to the degradation of damaged proteins inside mitochondria. The physical interaction of SPATA18/MIEAP, BNIP3 and BNIP3L/NIX at the mitochondrial outer [...] (259 aa) |
| | DKC1 | H/ACA ribonucleoprotein complex subunit DKC1; [Isoform 1]: Catalytic subunit of H/ACA small nucleolar ribonucleoprotein (H/ACA snoRNP) complex, which catalyzes pseudouridylation of rRNA. This involves the isomerization of uridine such that the ribose is subsequently attached to C5, instead of the normal N1. Each rRNA can contain up to 100 pseudouridine ('psi') residues, which may serve to stabilize the conformation of rRNAs. Required for ribosome biogenesis and telomere maintenance. Also required for correct processing or intranuclear trafficking of TERC, the RNA component of the telom [...] (514 aa) |
| | YTHDF1 | YTH domain-containing family protein 1; Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing mRNAs, and promotes mRNA translation efficiency. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Acts as a regulator of mRNA translation efficiency: promotes ribosome loading to m6A-containing mRNAs and interacts with translation initiation factors eIF3 (EIF3A or EIF3B) to facilitate translation initiation. Required to facilitate learning and memory formation in the [...] (559 aa) |
| | XIAP | E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase XIAP; Multi-functional protein which regulates not only caspases and apoptosis, but also modulates inflammatory signaling and immunity, copper homeostasis, mitogenic kinase signaling, cell proliferation, as well as cell invasion and metastasis. Acts as a direct caspase inhibitor. Directly bind to the active site pocket of CASP3 and CASP7 and obstructs substrate entry. Inactivates CASP9 by keeping it in a monomeric, inactive state. Acts as an E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase regulating NF-kappa-B signaling and the target proteins for its E3 ubiquitin-protein ligas [...] (497 aa) |
| | PTEN | Phosphatase and tensin homolog; Tumor suppressor. Acts as a dual-specificity protein phosphatase, dephosphorylating tyrosine-, serine- and threonine- phosphorylated proteins. Also acts as a lipid phosphatase, removing the phosphate in the D3 position of the inositol ring from phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3,4- diphosphate, phosphatidylinositol 3-phosphate and inositol 1,3,4,5- tetrakisphosphate with order of substrate preference in vitro PtdIns(3,4,5)P3 > PtdIns(3,4)P2 > PtdIns3P > Ins(1,3,4,5)P4. The lipid phosphatase activity is critical for its tumor [...] (403 aa) |
| | PCIF1 | mRNA (2'-O-methyladenosine-N(6)-)-methyltransferase; Cap-specific adenosine methyltransferase that catalyzes formation of N(6),2'-O-dimethyladenosine cap (m6A(m)) by methylating the adenosine at the second transcribed position of capped mRNAs. Recruited to the early elongation complex of RNA polymerase II (RNAPII) via interaction with POLR2A and mediates formation of m6A(m) co- transcriptionally. (704 aa) |
| | YBX1 | Y-box-binding protein 1; DNA- and RNA-binding protein involved in various processes, such as translational repression, RNA stabilization, mRNA splicing, DNA repair and transcription regulation. Predominantly acts as a RNA-binding protein: binds preferentially to the 5'-[CU]CUGCG-3' RNA motif and specifically recognizes mRNA transcripts modified by C5-methylcytosine (m5C). Promotes mRNA stabilization: acts by binding to m5C- containing mRNAs and recruiting the mRNA stability maintainer ELAVL1, thereby preventing mRNA decay. Component of the CRD-mediated complex that promotes MYC mRNA st [...] (324 aa) |
| | EIF3I | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit I; Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribos [...] (325 aa) |
| | TET1 | Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET1; Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in active DNA demethylation. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation. Methylation at the C5 position of cytosine bases is an epigenetic modification of the mammalian genome which plays an important role in transcription [...] (2136 aa) |
| | KLF4 | Krueppel-like factor 4; Transcription factor; can act both as activator and as repressor. Binds the 5'-CACCC-3' core sequence. Binds to the promoter region of its own gene and can activate its own transcription. Regulates the expression of key transcription factors during embryonic development. Plays an important role in maintaining embryonic stem cells, and in preventing their differentiation. Required for establishing the barrier function of the skin and for postnatal maturation and maintenance of the ocular surface. Involved in the differentiation of epithelial cells and may also fu [...] (479 aa) |
| | EIF2S2 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 2 subunit 2; eIF-2 functions in the early steps of protein synthesis by forming a ternary complex with GTP and initiator tRNA. This complex binds to a 40S ribosomal subunit, followed by mRNA binding to form a 43S preinitiation complex. Junction of the 60S ribosomal subunit to form the 80S initiation complex is preceded by hydrolysis of the GTP bound to eIF-2 and release of an eIF-2-GDP binary complex. In order for eIF-2 to recycle and catalyze another round of initiation, the GDP bound to eIF-2 must exchange with GTP by way of a reaction catalyz [...] (333 aa) |
| | NCBP1 | Nuclear cap-binding protein subunit 1; Component of the cap-binding complex (CBC), which binds cotranscriptionally to the 5'-cap of pre-mRNAs and is involved in various processes such as pre-mRNA splicing, translation regulation, nonsense-mediated mRNA decay, RNA-mediated gene silencing (RNAi) by microRNAs (miRNAs) and mRNA export. The CBC complex is involved in mRNA export from the nucleus via its interaction with ALYREF/THOC4/ALY, leading to the recruitment of the mRNA export machinery to the 5'-end of mRNA and to mRNA export in a 5' to 3' direction through the nuclear pore. The CBC [...] (790 aa) |
| | BCL2L1 | Bcl-2-like protein 1; Potent inhibitor of cell death. Inhibits activation of caspases. Appears to regulate cell death by blocking the voltage- dependent anion channel (VDAC) by binding to it and preventing the release of the caspase activator, CYC1, from the mitochondrial membrane. Also acts as a regulator of G2 checkpoint and progression to cytokinesis during mitosis. Isoform Bcl-X(S) promotes apoptosis. (233 aa) |
| | HNRNPK | Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein K; One of the major pre-mRNA-binding proteins. Binds tenaciously to poly(C) sequences. Likely to play a role in the nuclear metabolism of hnRNAs, particularly for pre-mRNAs that contain cytidine-rich sequences. Can also bind poly(C) single-stranded DNA. Plays an important role in p53/TP53 response to DNA damage, acting at the level of both transcription activation and repression. When sumoylated, acts as a transcriptional coactivator of p53/TP53, playing a role in p21/CDKN1A and 14-3-3 sigma/SFN induction (By similarity). As far as transcription [...] (464 aa) |
| | PUS1 | tRNA pseudouridine synthase A; Converts specific uridines to PSI in a number of tRNA substrates. Acts on positions 27/28 in the anticodon stem and also positions 34 and 36 in the anticodon of an intron containing tRNA. Involved in regulation of nuclear receptor activity through pseudouridylation of SRA1 RNA; Belongs to the tRNA pseudouridine synthase TruA family. (427 aa) |
| | PIK3CD | Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit delta isoform; Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Mediates immune responses. Plays a role in B-cell development, proliferation, migration, and function. Required for B-cell recepto [...] (1044 aa) |
| | TRDMT1 | tRNA (cytosine(38)-C(5))-methyltransferase; Specifically methylates cytosine 38 in the anticodon loop of tRNA(Asp). (391 aa) |
| | NSUN7 | Putative methyltransferase NSUN7; May have S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyl-transferase activity; Belongs to the class I-like SAM-binding methyltransferase superfamily. RsmB/NOP family. (718 aa) |
| | NOP2 | Probable 28S rRNA (cytosine(4447)-C(5))-methyltransferase; Involved in ribosomal large subunit assembly. S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C(5) position of cytosine 4447 in 28S rRNA (Probable). May play a role in the regulation of the cell cycle and the increased nucleolar activity that is associated with the cell proliferation (Probable); Belongs to the class I-like SAM-binding methyltransferase superfamily. RsmB/NOP family. (845 aa) |
| | METTL14 | N6-adenosine-methyltransferase non-catalytic subunit; The METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer forms a N6-methyltransferase complex that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of some mRNAs and regulates the circadian clock, differentiation of embryonic stem cells and cortical neurogenesis. In the heterodimer formed with METTL3, METTL14 constitutes the RNA-binding scaffold that recognizes the substrate rather than the catalytic core. N6-methyladenosine (m6A), which takes place at the 5'-[AG]GAC-3' consensus sites of some mRNAs, plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. M6A acts [...] (456 aa) |
| | ITGB1 | Integrin beta-1; Integrins alpha-1/beta-1, alpha-2/beta-1, alpha-10/beta-1 and alpha-11/beta-1 are receptors for collagen. Integrins alpha-1/beta-1 and alpha-2/beta-2 recognize the proline-hydroxylated sequence G-F-P-G- E-R in collagen. Integrins alpha-2/beta-1, alpha-3/beta-1, alpha- 4/beta-1, alpha-5/beta-1, alpha-8/beta-1, alpha-10/beta-1, alpha- 11/beta-1 and alpha-V/beta-1 are receptors for fibronectin. Alpha- 4/beta-1 recognizes one or more domains within the alternatively spliced CS-1 and CS-5 regions of fibronectin. Integrin alpha-5/beta-1 is a receptor for fibrinogen. Integrin [...] (798 aa) |
| | SOX10 | Transcription factor SOX-10; Transcription factor that plays a central role in developing and mature glia. Specifically activates expression of myelin genes, during oligodendrocyte (OL) maturation, such as DUSP15 and MYRF, thereby playing a central role in oligodendrocyte maturation and CNS myelination. Once induced, MYRF cooperates with SOX10 to implement the myelination program. Transcriptional activator of MITF, acting synergistically with PAX3. (466 aa) |
| | BCL2 | Apoptosis regulator Bcl-2; Suppresses apoptosis in a variety of cell systems including factor-dependent lymphohematopoietic and neural cells. Regulates cell death by controlling the mitochondrial membrane permeability. Appears to function in a feedback loop system with caspases. Inhibits caspase activity either by preventing the release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria and/or by binding to the apoptosis-activating factor (APAF-1). May attenuate inflammation by impairing NLRP1-inflammasome activation, hence CASP1 activation and IL1B release. (239 aa) |
| | ALKBH5 | RNA demethylase ALKBH5; Dioxygenase that demethylates RNA by oxidative demethylation: specifically demethylates N(6)-methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes. Can also demethylate N(6)-methyladenosine in single- stranded DNA (in vitro). Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron. Demethylation of m6A mRNA affects mRNA processing and export. Required for the late meiotic and haploid phases of spermatogenesis by mediating m6A demethylation in spermatocytes and round spermatids: m6A demethylation of targe [...] (394 aa) |
| | CDKN1A | Cyclin-dependent kinase inhibitor 1; May be involved in p53/TP53 mediated inhibition of cellular proliferation in response to DNA damage. Binds to and inhibits cyclin- dependent kinase activity, preventing phosphorylation of critical cyclin-dependent kinase substrates and blocking cell cycle progression. Functions in the nuclear localization and assembly of cyclin D-CDK4 complex and promotes its kinase activity towards RB1. At higher stoichiometric ratios, inhibits the kinase activity of the cyclin D- CDK4 complex. Inhibits DNA synthesis by DNA polymerase delta by competing with POLD3 [...] (164 aa) |
| | CD8A | T-cell surface glycoprotein CD8 alpha chain; Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class I molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins while class II derived from extracellular proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class I proteins presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Sr [...] (235 aa) |
| | TET3 | Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET3; Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming in the zygote following fertilization. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5- carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation (By similarity). Selectively binds to the promoter region of target genes and contributes to regulate [...] (1795 aa) |
| | CXCR4 | C-X-C chemokine receptor type 4; Receptor for the C-X-C chemokine CXCL12/SDF-1 that transduces a signal by increasing intracellular calcium ion levels and enhancing MAPK1/MAPK3 activation. Involved in the AKT signaling cascade. Plays a role in regulation of cell migration, e.g. during wound healing. Acts as a receptor for extracellular ubiquitin; leading to enhanced intracellular calcium ions and reduced cellular cAMP levels. Binds bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS) et mediates LPS-induced inflammatory response, including TNF secretion by monocytes. Involved in hematopoiesis and in car [...] (356 aa) |
| | RARG | Retinoic acid receptor gamma; Receptor for retinoic acid. Retinoic acid receptors bind as heterodimers to their target response elements in response to their ligands, all-trans or 9-cis retinoic acid, and regulate gene expression in various biological processes. The RAR/RXR heterodimers bind to the retinoic acid response elements (RARE) composed of tandem 5'-AGGTCA-3' sites known as DR1-DR5. In the absence of ligand, acts mainly as an activator of gene expression due to weak binding to corepressors. Required for limb bud development. In concert with RARA or RARB, required for skeletal [...] (454 aa) |
| | EIF4B | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4B; Required for the binding of mRNA to ribosomes. Functions in close association with EIF4-F and EIF4-A. Binds near the 5'-terminal cap of mRNA in presence of EIF-4F and ATP. Promotes the ATPase activity and the ATP-dependent RNA unwinding activity of both EIF4-A and EIF4-F. (616 aa) |
| | EIF4G1 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma 1; Component of the protein complex eIF4F, which is involved in the recognition of the mRNA cap, ATP-dependent unwinding of 5'-terminal secondary structure and recruitment of mRNA to the ribosome; Belongs to the eukaryotic initiation factor 4G family. (1606 aa) |
| | PUS7 | Pseudouridylate synthase 7 homolog; Pseudouridylate synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of RNAs. Acts as a regulator of protein synthesis in embryonic stem cells by mediating pseudouridylation of RNA fragments derived from tRNAs (tRFs): pseudouridylated tRFs inhibit translation by targeting the translation initiation complex. Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs: mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'-UGUAG-3'. In addition to mRNAs and tRNAs, binds other types of RNAs, such as snRNAs, Y RNAs and vault RNAs, suggesting that it can catalyze pseudour [...] (661 aa) |
| | FTO | Alpha-ketoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase FTO; RNA demethylase that mediates oxidative demethylation of different RNA species, such as mRNAs, tRNAs and snRNAs, and acts as a regulator of fat mass, adipogenesis and energy homeostasis. Specifically demethylates N(6)- methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes. M6A demethylation by FTO affects mRNA expression and stability. Also able to demethylate m6A in U6 small nuclear RNA (snRNA). Mediates demethylation of N(6),2'-O- dimethyladenosine cap (m6A(m)), by demethylating [...] (505 aa) |
| | PIK3CG | Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit gamma isoform; Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Links G-protein coupled receptor activation to PIP3 production. Involved in immune, inflammatory and allergic responses. Modulates [...] (1102 aa) |
| | EIF1 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 1; Necessary for scanning and involved in initiation site selection. Promotes the assembly of 48S ribosomal complexes at the authentic initiation codon of a conventional capped mRNA. (113 aa) |
| | NSUN4 | 5-methylcytosine rRNA methyltransferase NSUN4; Involved in mitochondrial ribosome assembly. 5-methylcytosine rRNA methyltransferase that probably is involved in mitochondrial ribosome small subunit (SSU) maturation by methylation of mitochondrial 12S rRNA; the function is independent of MTERFD2/MTERF4 and assembled mitochondrial ribosome large subunit (LSU). Targeted to LSU by MTERFD2/MTERF4 and probably is involved in a final step in ribosome biogenesis to ensure that SSU and LSU are assembled. In vitro can methylate 16S rRNA of the LSU; the methylation is enhanced by MTERFD/MTERF4; B [...] (384 aa) |
| | EIF4E | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4E; Recognizes and binds the 7-methylguanosine-containing mRNA cap during an early step in the initiation of protein synthesis and facilitates ribosome binding by inducing the unwinding of the mRNAs secondary structures. Component of the CYFIP1-EIF4E-FMR1 complex which binds to the mRNA cap and mediates translational repression. In the CYFIP1-EIF4E-FMR1 complex this subunit mediates the binding to the mRNA cap. (248 aa) |
| | EIF3H | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit H; Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribos [...] (352 aa) |
| | HDAC2 | Histone deacetylase 2; Responsible for the deacetylation of lysine residues on the N-terminal part of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3 and H4). Histone deacetylation gives a tag for epigenetic repression and plays an important role in transcriptional regulation, cell cycle progression and developmental events. Histone deacetylases act via the formation of large multiprotein complexes. Forms transcriptional repressor complexes by associating with MAD, SIN3, YY1 and N-COR. Interacts in the late S- phase of DNA-replication with DNMT1 in the other transcriptional repressor complex composed [...] (488 aa) |
| | EIF5AL1 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 5A-1-like; mRNA-binding protein involved in translation elongation. Has an important function at the level of mRNA turnover, probably acting downstream of decapping. Involved in actin dynamics and cell cycle progression, mRNA decay and probably in a pathway involved in stress response and maintenance of cell wall integrity. Functions as a regulator of apoptosis. Mediates effects of polyamines on neuronal process extension and survival. May play an important role in brain development and function, and in skeletal muscle stem cell differentiation [...] (154 aa) |
| | EIF3F | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit F; Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribos [...] (357 aa) |
| | EIF4G2 | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 4 gamma 2; Appears to play a role in the switch from cap-dependent to IRES-mediated translation during mitosis, apoptosis and viral infection. Cleaved by some caspases and viral proteases. (907 aa) |
| | HIF1A | Hypoxia-inducible factor 1-alpha; Functions as a master transcriptional regulator of the adaptive response to hypoxia. Under hypoxic conditions, activates the transcription of over 40 genes, including erythropoietin, glucose transporters, glycolytic enzymes, vascular endothelial growth factor, HILPDA, and other genes whose protein products increase oxygen delivery or facilitate metabolic adaptation to hypoxia. Plays an essential role in embryonic vascularization, tumor angiogenesis and pathophysiology of ischemic disease. Heterodimerizes with ARNT; heterodimer binds to core DNA sequenc [...] (850 aa) |
| | TET2 | Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET2; Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in active DNA demethylation. Has a preference for 5-hydroxymethylcytosine in CpG motifs. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation. Methylation at the C5 position of cytosine bases is an epigenetic modification of the mam [...] (2002 aa) |
| | YTHDF2 | YTH domain-containing family protein 2; Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing RNAs, and regulates mRNA stability. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. Acts as a regulator of mRNA stability by promoting degradation of m6A-containing mRNAs via interaction with the CCR4-NOT and ribonuclease P/MRP complexes, depending on the context. M6A-containing mRNAs containing a binding site for RIDA/HRSP12 (5'-GGUUC-3') are preferentially degraded by endoribonucleolytic cle [...] (579 aa) |
| | AKT1 | RAC-alpha serine/threonine-protein kinase; AKT1 is one of 3 closely related serine/threonine-protein kinases (AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3) called the AKT kinase, and which regulate many processes including metabolism, proliferation, cell survival, growth and angiogenesis. This is mediated through serine and/or threonine phosphorylation of a range of downstream substrates. Over 100 substrate candidates have been reported so far, but for most of them, no isoform specificity has been reported. AKT is responsible of the regulation of glucose uptake by mediating insulin-induced translocation of the [...] (480 aa) |
| | YTHDC1 | YTH domain-containing protein 1; Regulator of alternative splicing that specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non- coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Acts as a key regulator of exon-inclusion or exon-skipping during alternative splicing via interaction with mRNA splicing factors SRSF3 and SRSF10. Specifically binds m6A-containing mRNAs and promotes recruitment of SRSF3 to its mRNA-binding elements adjacent to m6A sites, leading [...] (735 aa) |
| | YTHDF3 | YTH domain-containing family protein 3; Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing RNAs and promotes RNA translation efficiency. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Shares m6A-containing mRNAs targets with YTHDF1 and YTHDF2, and regulates different processes depending on the context. Facilitates the translation of targeted mRNAs in cooperation with YTHDF1 by binding to m6A-containing mRNAs and interacting with 40S and 60S ribosome subu [...] (588 aa) |
| | MYC | Myc proto-oncogene protein; Transcription factor that binds DNA in a non-specific manner, yet also specifically recognizes the core sequence 5'-CAC[GA]TG-3'. Activates the transcription of growth-related genes. Binds to the VEGFA promoter, promoting VEGFA production and subsequent sprouting angiogenesis. Regulator of somatic reprogramming, controls self-renewal of embryonic stem cells. Functions with TAF6L to activate target gene expression through RNA polymerase II pause release (By similarity). (454 aa) |
| | RPS10 | 40S ribosomal protein S10; Component of the 40S ribosomal subunit; Belongs to the eukaryotic ribosomal protein eS10 family. (165 aa) |
| | CTNNB1 | Catenin beta-1; Key downstream component of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. In the absence of Wnt, forms a complex with AXIN1, AXIN2, APC, CSNK1A1 and GSK3B that promotes phosphorylation on N-terminal Ser and Thr residues and ubiquitination of CTNNB1 via BTRC and its subsequent degradation by the proteasome. In the presence of Wnt ligand, CTNNB1 is not ubiquitinated and accumulates in the nucleus, where it acts as a coactivator for transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family, leading to activate Wnt responsive genes. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion, as component of an [...] (781 aa) |
| | EIF2B5 | Translation initiation factor eIF-2B subunit epsilon; Catalyzes the exchange of eukaryotic initiation factor 2- bound GDP for GTP; Belongs to the eIF-2B gamma/epsilon subunits family. (721 aa) |
| | EIF4A3 | Eukaryotic initiation factor 4A-III, N-terminally processed; ATP-dependent RNA helicase. Involved in pre-mRNA splicing as component of the spliceosome. Core component of the splicing-dependent multiprotein exon junction complex (EJC) deposited at splice junctions on mRNAs. The EJC is a dynamic structure consisting of core proteins and several peripheral nuclear and cytoplasmic associated factors that join the complex only transiently either during EJC assembly or during subsequent mRNA metabolism. The EJC marks the position of the exon-exon junction in the mature mRNA for the gene expr [...] (411 aa) |
| | MKNK1 | MAP kinase-interacting serine/threonine-protein kinase 1; May play a role in the response to environmental stress and cytokines. Appears to regulate translation by phosphorylating EIF4E, thus increasing the affinity of this protein for the 7-methylguanosine- containing mRNA cap. Belongs to the protein kinase superfamily. CAMK Ser/Thr protein kinase family. (465 aa) |
| | PIK3CB | Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate 3-kinase catalytic subunit beta isoform; Phosphoinositide-3-kinase (PI3K) that phosphorylates PtdIns (Phosphatidylinositol), PtdIns4P (Phosphatidylinositol 4-phosphate) and PtdIns(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) to generate phosphatidylinositol 3,4,5-trisphosphate (PIP3). PIP3 plays a key role by recruiting PH domain-containing proteins to the membrane, including AKT1 and PDPK1, activating signaling cascades involved in cell growth, survival, proliferation, motility and morphology. Involved in the activation of AKT1 upon stimulation [...] (1070 aa) |
