Your Input: | |
| | CD86 | T-lymphocyte activation antigen CD86; Receptor involved in the costimulatory signal essential for T-lymphocyte proliferation and interleukin-2 production, by binding CD28 or CTLA-4. May play a critical role in the early events of T-cell activation and costimulation of naive T-cells, such as deciding between immunity and anergy that is made by T-cells within 24 hours after activation. Isoform 2 interferes with the formation of CD86 clusters, and thus acts as a negative regulator of T-cell activation. (329 aa) |
| | FAM76A | Protein FAM76A; Family with sequence similarity 76 member A. (341 aa) |
| | CD4 | T-cell surface glycoprotein CD4; Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class II molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class II peptides are derived from extracellular proteins while class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class II presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Src kina [...] (458 aa) |
| | YTHDC2 | 3'-5' RNA helicase YTHDC2; 3'-5' RNA helicase that plays a key role in the male and female germline by promoting transition from mitotic to meiotic divisions in stem cells. Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs, a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non- coding RNAs that plays a role in the efficiency of RNA processing and stability. Essential for ensuring a successful progression of the meiotic program in the germline by regulating the level of m6A-containing RNAs (By similarity). Acts by binding and promoting degradation of m6 [...] (1430 aa) |
| | TRMT6 | tRNA (adenine(58)-N(1))-methyltransferase non-catalytic subunit TRM6; Substrate-binding subunit of tRNA (adenine-N(1)-)- methyltransferase, which catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) in initiator methionyl-tRNA. Together with the TRMT61A catalytic subunit, part of a mRNA N(1)- methyltransferase complex that mediates methylation of adenosine residues at the N(1) position of a small subset of mRNAs: N(1) methylation takes place in tRNA T-loop-like structures of mRNAs and is only present at low stoichiometries. Belongs to the TRM6/GCD10 family. (497 aa) |
| | MAPK1 | Mitogen-activated protein kinase 1; Serine/threonine kinase which acts as an essential component of the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. MAPK1/ERK2 and MAPK3/ERK1 are the 2 MAPKs which play an important role in the MAPK/ERK cascade. They participate also in a signaling cascade initiated by activated KIT and KITLG/SCF. Depending on the cellular context, the MAPK/ERK cascade mediates diverse biological functions such as cell growth, adhesion, survival and differentiation through the regulation of transcription, translation, cytoskeletal rearrangements. The MAPK/ERK cascade plays a [...] (360 aa) |
| | XBP1 | X-box-binding protein 1, cytoplasmic form; Functions as a transcription factor during endoplasmic reticulum (ER) stress by regulating the unfolded protein response (UPR). Required for cardiac myogenesis and hepatogenesis during embryonic development, and the development of secretory tissues such as exocrine pancreas and salivary gland (By similarity). Involved in terminal differentiation of B lymphocytes to plasma cells and production of immunoglobulins. Modulates the cellular response to ER stress in a PIK3R-dependent manner. Binds to the cis-acting X box present in the promoter regio [...] (261 aa) |
| | ALKBH1 | Nucleic acid dioxygenase ALKBH1; Dioxygenase that acts as on nucleic acids, such as DNA and tRNA. Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron. A number of activities have been described for this dioxygenase, but recent results suggest that it mainly acts as on tRNAs and mediates their demethylation or oxidation depending on the context and subcellular compartment. Mainly acts as a tRNA demethylase by removing N(1)-methyladenine from various tRNAs, with a preference for N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) present on a stem loop structure of tRNAs. Acts as a regulator o [...] (389 aa) |
| | STS | Steryl-sulfatase; Catalyzes the conversion of sulfated steroid precursors, such as dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEA-S) and estrone sulfate to the free steroid. (583 aa) |
| | TGFB1 | Transforming growth factor beta-1 proprotein; Transforming growth factor beta-1 proprotein: Precursor of the Latency-associated peptide (LAP) and Transforming growth factor beta-1 (TGF-beta-1) chains, which constitute the regulatory and active subunit of TGF-beta-1, respectively. Transforming growth factor beta-1: Multifunctional protein that regulates the growth and differentiation of various cell types and is involved in various processes, such as normal development, immune function, microglia function and responses to neurodegeneration (By similarity). Activation into mature form fo [...] (390 aa) |
| | C5 | Complement C5 alpha' chain; Activation of C5 by a C5 convertase initiates the spontaneous assembly of the late complement components, C5-C9, into the membrane attack complex. C5b has a transient binding site for C6. The C5b-C6 complex is the foundation upon which the lytic complex is assembled. (1676 aa) |
| | PUS3 | tRNA pseudouridine(38/39) synthase; Formation of pseudouridine at position 39 in the anticodon stem and loop of transfer RNAs; Belongs to the tRNA pseudouridine synthase TruA family. (481 aa) |
| | IFNG | Interferon gamma; Produced by lymphocytes activated by specific antigens or mitogens. IFN-gamma, in addition to having antiviral activity, has important immunoregulatory functions. It is a potent activator of macrophages, it has antiproliferative effects on transformed cells and it can potentiate the antiviral and antitumor effects of the type I interferons; Belongs to the type II (or gamma) interferon family. (166 aa) |
| | ZC3H13 | Zinc finger CCCH domain-containing protein 13; Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Acts as a key regulator of m6A methylation by promoting m6A methylation of mRNAs at the 3'-UTR (By similarity). Controls embryonic stem cells (ESCs) pluripotency via its role in m6A methylation (By similarity). In the WMM complex, anchors component of the MACOM subcomplex in the nucleus (By similarity). Also required for bridging WTAP to the RN [...] (1668 aa) |
| | RRP8 | Ribosomal RNA-processing protein 8; Essential component of the eNoSC (energy-dependent nucleolar silencing) complex, a complex that mediates silencing of rDNA in response to intracellular energy status and acts by recruiting histone- modifying enzymes. The eNoSC complex is able to sense the energy status of cell: upon glucose starvation, elevation of NAD(+)/NADP(+) ratio activates SIRT1, leading to histone H3 deacetylation followed by dimethylation of H3 at 'Lys-9' (H3K9me2) by SUV39H1 and the formation of silent chromatin in the rDNA locus. In the complex, RRP8 binds to H3K9me2 and pr [...] (456 aa) |
| | NAT10 | RNA cytidine acetyltransferase; RNA cytidine acetyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of N(4)-acetylcytidine (ac4C) modification on mRNAs, 18S rRNA and tRNAs. Catalyzes ac4C modification of a broad range of mRNAs, enhancing mRNA stability and translation. mRNA ac4C modification is frequently present within wobble cytidine sites and promotes translation efficiency. Mediates the formation of ac4C at position 1842 in 18S rRNA. May also catalyze the formation of ac4C at position 1337 in 18S rRNA (By similarity). Required for early nucleolar cleavages of precursor rRNA at sites A0, A1 [...] (1025 aa) |
| | TROAP | Tastin; Could be involved with bystin and trophinin in a cell adhesion molecule complex that mediates an initial attachment of the blastocyst to uterine epithelial cells at the time of the embryo implantation. (778 aa) |
| | IGF2BP3 | Insulin-like growth factor 2 mRNA-binding protein 3; RNA-binding factor that may recruit target transcripts to cytoplasmic protein-RNA complexes (mRNPs). This transcript 'caging' into mRNPs allows mRNA transport and transient storage. It also modulates the rate and location at which target transcripts encounter the translational apparatus and shields them from endonuclease attacks or microRNA-mediated degradation. Binds to the 3'-UTR of CD44 mRNA and stabilizes it, hence promotes cell adhesion and invadopodia formation in cancer cells. Binds to beta-actin/ACTB and MYC transcripts. Bind [...] (579 aa) |
| | POU5F1 | POU domain, class 5, transcription factor 1; Transcription factor that binds to the octamer motif (5'- ATTTGCAT-3'). Forms a trimeric complex with SOX2 or SOX15 on DNA and controls the expression of a number of genes involved in embryonic development such as YES1, FGF4, UTF1 and ZFP206. Critical for early embryogenesis and for embryonic stem cell pluripotency. Belongs to the POU transcription factor family. Class-5 subfamily. (360 aa) |
| | CD80 | T-lymphocyte activation antigen CD80; Involved in the costimulatory signal essential for T- lymphocyte activation. T-cell proliferation and cytokine production is induced by the binding of CD28, binding to CTLA-4 has opposite effects and inhibits T-cell activation. (288 aa) |
| | STAT3 | Signal transducer and activator of transcription 3; Signal transducer and transcription activator that mediates cellular responses to interleukins, KITLG/SCF, LEP and other growth factors. Once activated, recruits coactivators, such as NCOA1 or MED1, to the promoter region of the target gene. May mediate cellular responses to activated FGFR1, FGFR2, FGFR3 and FGFR4. Binds to the interleukin-6 (IL-6)-responsive elements identified in the promoters of various acute-phase protein genes. Activated by IL31 through IL31RA. Acts as a regulator of inflammatory response by regulating differenti [...] (770 aa) |
| | NSUN2 | RNA cytosine C(5)-methyltransferase NSUN2; RNA cytosine C(5)-methyltransferase that methylates cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) in various RNAs, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and some long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs). Involved in various processes, such as epidermal stem cell differentiation, testis differentiation and maternal to zygotic transition during early development: acts by increasing protein synthesis; cytosine C(5)-methylation promoting tRNA stability and preventing mRNA decay. Methylates cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) at positions 34 and 48 of intron- containing tRNA(Leu)(CAA) p [...] (767 aa) |
| | DNMT3A | DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 3A; Required for genome-wide de novo methylation and is essential for the establishment of DNA methylation patterns during development. DNA methylation is coordinated with methylation of histones. It modifies DNA in a non-processive manner and also methylates non-CpG sites. May preferentially methylate DNA linker between 2 nucleosomal cores and is inhibited by histone H1. Plays a role in paternal and maternal imprinting. Required for methylation of most imprinted loci in germ cells. Acts as a transcriptional corepressor for ZBTB18. Recruited to trimet [...] (912 aa) |
| | SFRP2 | Secreted frizzled-related protein 2; Soluble frizzled-related proteins (sFRPS) function as modulators of Wnt signaling through direct interaction with Wnts. They have a role in regulating cell growth and differentiation in specific cell types. SFRP2 may be important for eye retinal development and for myogenesis. (295 aa) |
| | KHDRBS2 | KH domain-containing, RNA-binding, signal transduction-associated protein 2; RNA-binding protein that plays a role in the regulation of alternative splicing and influences mRNA splice site selection and exon inclusion. Binds both poly(A) and poly(U) homopolymers. Phosphorylation by PTK6 inhibits its RNA-binding ability (By similarity). Induces an increased concentration-dependent incorporation of exon in CD44 pre- mRNA by direct binding to purine-rich exonic enhancer. Can regulate alternative splicing of NRXN1 in the laminin G-like domain 6 containing the evolutionary conserved neurexi [...] (349 aa) |
| | HOXA10 | Homeobox protein Hox-A10; Sequence-specific transcription factor which is part of a developmental regulatory system that provides cells with specific positional identities on the anterior-posterior axis. Binds to the DNA sequence 5'-AA[AT]TTTTATTAC-3'. (410 aa) |
| | VIRMA | Protein virilizer homolog; Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Acts as a key regulator of m6A methylation by promoting m6A methylation of mRNAs in the 3'-UTR near the stop codon: recruits the catalytic core components METTL3 and METTL14, thereby guiding m6A methylation at specific sites. Required for mRNA polyadenylation via its role in selective m6A methylation: m6A methylation of mRNAs in the 3'-UTR near the stop codon corr [...] (1812 aa) |
| | METTL3 | N6-adenosine-methyltransferase catalytic subunit; The METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer forms a N6-methyltransferase complex that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of some RNAs and regulates various processes such as the circadian clock, differentiation of embryonic and hematopoietic stem cells, cortical neurogenesis, response to DNA damage, differentiation of T-cells and primary miRNA processing. In the heterodimer formed with METTL14, METTL3 constitutes the catalytic core. N6- methyladenosine (m6A), which takes place at the 5'-[AG]GAC-3' consensus sites of some mRNAs, plays [...] (580 aa) |
| | TRUB1 | Probable tRNA pseudouridine synthase 1; Pseudouridine synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs. Mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'-GUUCNANNC-3', harboring a stem-loop structure. Constitutes the major pseudouridine synthase acting on mRNAs ; Belongs to the pseudouridine synthase TruB family. (349 aa) |
| | AXL | Tyrosine-protein kinase receptor UFO; Receptor tyrosine kinase that transduces signals from the extracellular matrix into the cytoplasm by binding growth factor GAS6 and which is thus regulating many physiological processes including cell survival, cell proliferation, migration and differentiation. Ligand binding at the cell surface induces dimerization and autophosphorylation of AXL. Following activation by ligand, ALX binds and induces tyrosine phosphorylation of PI3-kinase subunits PIK3R1, PIK3R2 and PIK3R3; but also GRB2, PLCG1, LCK and PTPN11. Other downstream substrate candidates [...] (894 aa) |
| | TRMT61B | tRNA (adenine(58)-N(1))-methyltransferase, mitochondrial; Methyltransferase that catalyzes the formation of N(1)- methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) in various tRNAs in mitochondrion, including tRNA(Leu) (deciphering codons UUA or UUG), tRNA(Lys) and tRNA(Ser) (deciphering codons UCA, UCU, UCG or UCC). Catalyzes the formation of 1-methyladenosine at position 947 of mitochondrial 16S ribosomal RNA and this modification is most likely important for mitoribosomal structure and function. In addition to tRNA N(1)-methyltransferase activity, also acts as a mRNA N(1)-methyltransferase by me [...] (477 aa) |
| | CXCL10 | C-X-C motif chemokine 10; Pro-inflammatory cytokine that is involved in a wide variety of processes such as chemotaxis, differentiation, and activation of peripheral immune cells, regulation of cell growth, apoptosis and modulation of angiostatic effects. Plays thereby an important role during viral infections by stimulating the activation and migration of immune cells to the infected sites (By similarity). Mechanistically, binding of CXCL10 to the CXCR3 receptor activates G protein-mediated signaling and results in downstream activation of phospholipase C-dependent pathway, an increas [...] (98 aa) |
| | NSUN5 | Probable 28S rRNA (cytosine-C(5))-methyltransferase; S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C(5) position of cytosine 3782 in 28S rRNA. (470 aa) |
| | TRMT10C | tRNA methyltransferase 10 homolog C; Mitochondrial tRNA N(1)-methyltransferase involved in mitochondrial tRNA maturation. Component of mitochondrial ribonuclease P, a complex composed of TRMT10C/MRPP1, HSD17B10/MRPP2 and PRORP/MRPP3, which cleaves tRNA molecules in their 5'-ends. Together with HSD17B10/MRPP2, forms a subcomplex of the mitochondrial ribonuclease P, named MRPP1-MRPP2 subcomplex, which displays functions that are independent of the ribonuclease P activity. The MRPP1-MRPP2 subcomplex catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methylguanine and N(1)-methyladenine at position 9 (m1G9 a [...] (403 aa) |
| | PABPC1 | Polyadenylate-binding protein 1; Binds the poly(A) tail of mRNA, including that of its own transcript, and regulates processes of mRNA metabolism such as pre-mRNA splicing and mRNA stability. Its function in translational initiation regulation can either be enhanced by PAIP1 or repressed by PAIP2. Can probably bind to cytoplasmic RNA sequences other than poly(A) in vivo. Involved in translationally coupled mRNA turnover. Implicated with other RNA-binding proteins in the cytoplasmic deadenylation/translational and decay interplay of the FOS mRNA mediated by the major coding-region deter [...] (636 aa) |
| | METTL1 | tRNA (guanine-N(7)-)-methyltransferase; Methyltransferase that mediates the formation of N(7)- methylguanine in a subset of RNA species, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and microRNAs (miRNAs). Catalyzes the formation of N(7)-methylguanine at position 46 (m7G46) in tRNA. Also acts as a methyltransferase for a subset of internal N(7)-methylguanine in mRNAs. Internal N(7)-methylguanine methylation of mRNAs regulates translation. Also methylates a specific subset of miRNAs, such as let-7. N(7)-methylguanine methylation of let-7 miRNA promotes let-7 miRNA processing by disrupting an inhibitory seconda [...] (276 aa) |
| | CCNG2 | Cyclin-G2; May play a role in growth regulation and in negative regulation of cell cycle progression; Belongs to the cyclin family. Cyclin G subfamily. (344 aa) |
| | UBE2N | Ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme E2 N; The UBE2V1-UBE2N and UBE2V2-UBE2N heterodimers catalyze the synthesis of non-canonical 'Lys-63'-linked polyubiquitin chains. This type of polyubiquitination does not lead to protein degradation by the proteasome. Mediates transcriptional activation of target genes. Plays a role in the control of progress through the cell cycle and differentiation. Plays a role in the error-free DNA repair pathway and contributes to the survival of cells after DNA damage. Acts together with the E3 ligases, HLTF and SHPRH, in the 'Lys-63'-linked poly- ubiquitination of [...] (152 aa) |
| | NSUN3 | tRNA (cytosine(34)-C(5))-methyltransferase, mitochondrial; Mitochondrial tRNA methyltransferase that mediates methylation of cytosine to 5-methylcytosine (m5C) at position 34 of mt- tRNA(Met). mt- tRNA(Met) methylation at cytosine(34) takes place at the wobble position of the anticodon and initiates the formation of 5- formylcytosine (f(5)c) at this position. mt-tRNA(Met) containing the f(5)c modification at the wobble position enables recognition of the AUA codon in addition to the AUG codon, expanding codon recognition in mitochondrial translation. Belongs to the class I-like SAM-bin [...] (340 aa) |
| | CD276 | CD276 antigen; May participate in the regulation of T-cell-mediated immune response. May play a protective role in tumor cells by inhibiting natural-killer mediated cell lysis as well as a role of marker for detection of neuroblastoma cells. May be involved in the development of acute and chronic transplant rejection and in the regulation of lymphocytic activity at mucosal surfaces. Could also play a key role in providing the placenta and fetus with a suitable immunological environment throughout pregnancy. Both isoform 1 and isoform 2 appear to be redundant in their ability to modulat [...] (534 aa) |
| | EZH2 | Histone-lysine N-methyltransferase EZH2; Polycomb group (PcG) protein. Catalytic subunit of the PRC2/EED-EZH2 complex, which methylates 'Lys-9' (H3K9me) and 'Lys-27' (H3K27me) of histone H3, leading to transcriptional repression of the affected target gene. Able to mono-, di- and trimethylate 'Lys-27' of histone H3 to form H3K27me1, H3K27me2 and H3K27me3, respectively. Displays a preference for substrates with less methylation, loses activity when progressively more methyl groups are incorporated into H3K27, H3K27me0 > H3K27me1 > H3K27me2. Compared to EZH1-containing complexes, it is m [...] (751 aa) |
| | PKM | Pyruvate kinase PKM; Glycolytic enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of a phosphoryl group from phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP) to ADP, generating ATP. Stimulates POU5F1-mediated transcriptional activation. Plays a general role in caspase independent cell death of tumor cells. The ratio between the highly active tetrameric form and nearly inactive dimeric form determines whether glucose carbons are channeled to biosynthetic processes or used for glycolytic ATP production. The transition between the 2 forms contributes to the control of glycolysis and is important for tumor cell proliferation a [...] (531 aa) |
| | RPUSD2 | RNA pseudouridine synthase domain containing 2. (545 aa) |
| | CSF1 | Processed macrophage colony-stimulating factor 1; Cytokine that plays an essential role in the regulation of survival, proliferation and differentiation of hematopoietic precursor cells, especially mononuclear phagocytes, such as macrophages and monocytes. Promotes the release of proinflammatory chemokines, and thereby plays an important role in innate immunity and in inflammatory processes. Plays an important role in the regulation of osteoclast proliferation and differentiation, the regulation of bone resorption, and is required for normal bone development. Required for normal male a [...] (554 aa) |
| | DNMT3B | DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 3B; Required for genome-wide de novo methylation and is essential for the establishment of DNA methylation patterns during development. DNA methylation is coordinated with methylation of histones. May preferentially methylates nucleosomal DNA within the nucleosome core region. May function as transcriptional co-repressor by associating with CBX4 and independently of DNA methylation. Seems to be involved in gene silencing (By similarity). In association with DNMT1 and via the recruitment of CTCFL/BORIS, involved in activation of BAG1 gene expression by [...] (853 aa) |
| | PKP3 | Plakophilin-3; May play a role in junctional plaques; Belongs to the beta-catenin family. (797 aa) |
| | EIF3C | Eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 subunit C; Component of the eukaryotic translation initiation factor 3 (eIF-3) complex, which is required for several steps in the initiation of protein synthesis. The eIF-3 complex associates with the 40S ribosome and facilitates the recruitment of eIF-1, eIF-1A, eIF-2:GTP:methionyl- tRNAi and eIF-5 to form the 43S pre-initiation complex (43S PIC). The eIF-3 complex stimulates mRNA recruitment to the 43S PIC and scanning of the mRNA for AUG recognition. The eIF-3 complex is also required for disassembly and recycling of post-termination ribos [...] (913 aa) |
| | PDCD1 | Programmed cell death protein 1; Inhibitory receptor on antigen activated T-cells that plays a critical role in induction and maintenance of immune tolerance to self. Delivers inhibitory signals upon binding to ligands CD274/PDCD1L1 and CD273/PDCD1LG2. Following T-cell receptor (TCR) engagement, PDCD1 associates with CD3-TCR in the immunological synapse and directly inhibits T-cell activation (By similarity). Suppresses T-cell activation through the recruitment of PTPN11/SHP-2: following ligand-binding, PDCD1 is phosphorylated within the ITSM motif, leading to the recruitment of the pr [...] (288 aa) |
| | ERBB4 | Receptor tyrosine-protein kinase erbB-4; Tyrosine-protein kinase that plays an essential role as cell surface receptor for neuregulins and EGF family members and regulates development of the heart, the central nervous system and the mammary gland, gene transcription, cell proliferation, differentiation, migration and apoptosis. Required for normal cardiac muscle differentiation during embryonic development, and for postnatal cardiomyocyte proliferation. Required for normal development of the embryonic central nervous system, especially for normal neural crest cell migration and normal [...] (1308 aa) |
| | LIN28B | Protein lin-28 homolog B; Suppressor of microRNA (miRNA) biogenesis, including that of let-7 and possibly of miR107, miR-143 and miR-200c. Binds primary let-7 transcripts (pri-let-7), including pri-let-7g and pri-let-7a-1, and sequester them in the nucleolus, away from the microprocessor complex, hence preventing their processing into mature miRNA. Does not act on pri-miR21. The repression of let-7 expression is required for normal development and contributes to maintain the pluripotent state of embryonic stem cells by preventing let-7-mediated differentiation. When overexpressed, recr [...] (250 aa) |
| | HNRNPA2B1 | Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins A2/B1; Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoprotein (hnRNP) that associates with nascent pre-mRNAs, packaging them into hnRNP particles. The hnRNP particle arrangement on nascent hnRNA is non-random and sequence-dependent and serves to condense and stabilize the transcripts and minimize tangling and knotting. Packaging plays a role in various processes such as transcription, pre-mRNA processing, RNA nuclear export, subcellular location, mRNA translation and stability of mature mRNAs. Forms hnRNP particles with at least 20 other different hnRNP and he [...] (353 aa) |
| | FXR1 | Fragile X mental retardation syndrome-related protein 1; RNA-binding protein required for embryonic and postnatal development of muscle tissue. May regulate intracellular transport and local translation of certain mRNAs (By similarity); Belongs to the FMR1 family. (621 aa) |
| | WTAP | Pre-mRNA-splicing regulator WTAP; Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Required for accumulation of METTL3 and METTL14 to nuclear speckle. Acts as a mRNA splicing regulator. Regulates G2/M cell-cycle transition by binding to the 3' UTR of CCNA2, which enhances its stability. Impairs WT1 DNA-binding ability and inhibits expression of WT1 target genes. (396 aa) |
| | DNMT1 | DNA (cytosine-5)-methyltransferase 1; Methylates CpG residues. Preferentially methylates hemimethylated DNA. Associates with DNA replication sites in S phase maintaining the methylation pattern in the newly synthesized strand, that is essential for epigenetic inheritance. Associates with chromatin during G2 and M phases to maintain DNA methylation independently of replication. It is responsible for maintaining methylation patterns established in development. DNA methylation is coordinated with methylation of histones. Mediates transcriptional repression by direct binding to HDAC2. In a [...] (1632 aa) |
| | STAT1 | Signal transducer and activator of transcription 1-alpha/beta; Signal transducer and transcription activator that mediates cellular responses to interferons (IFNs), cytokine KITLG/SCF and other cytokines and other growth factors. Following type I IFN (IFN-alpha and IFN-beta) binding to cell surface receptors, signaling via protein kinases leads to activation of Jak kinases (TYK2 and JAK1) and to tyrosine phosphorylation of STAT1 and STAT2. The phosphorylated STATs dimerize and associate with ISGF3G/IRF-9 to form a complex termed ISGF3 transcription factor, that enters the nucleus. ISGF [...] (750 aa) |
| | MTOR | Serine/threonine-protein kinase mTOR; Serine/threonine protein kinase which is a central regulator of cellular metabolism, growth and survival in response to hormones, growth factors, nutrients, energy and stress signals. MTOR directly or indirectly regulates the phosphorylation of at least 800 proteins. Functions as part of 2 structurally and functionally distinct signaling complexes mTORC1 and mTORC2 (mTOR complex 1 and 2). Activated mTORC1 up-regulates protein synthesis by phosphorylating key regulators of mRNA translation and ribosome synthesis. This includes phosphorylation of EIF [...] (2549 aa) |
| | CXCL9 | C-X-C motif chemokine 9; Cytokine that affects the growth, movement, or activation state of cells that participate in immune and inflammatory response. Chemotactic for activated T-cells. Binds to CXCR3; Belongs to the intercrine alpha (chemokine CxC) family. (125 aa) |
| | HBS1L | HBS1-like protein; HBS1 like translational GTPase; Belongs to the TRAFAC class translation factor GTPase superfamily. Classic translation factor GTPase family. (684 aa) |
| | SGK1 | Serine/threonine-protein kinase Sgk1; Serine/threonine-protein kinase which is involved in the regulation of a wide variety of ion channels, membrane transporters, cellular enzymes, transcription factors, neuronal excitability, cell growth, proliferation, survival, migration and apoptosis. Plays an important role in cellular stress response. Contributes to regulation of renal Na(+) retention, renal K(+) elimination, salt appetite, gastric acid secretion, intestinal Na(+)/H(+) exchange and nutrient transport, insulin-dependent salt sensitivity of blood pressure, salt sensitivity of peri [...] (526 aa) |
| | LAMTOR2 | Ragulator complex protein LAMTOR2; As part of the Ragulator complex it is involved in amino acid sensing and activation of mTORC1, a signaling complex promoting cell growth in response to growth factors, energy levels, and amino acids. Activated by amino acids through a mechanism involving the lysosomal V- ATPase, the Ragulator functions as a guanine nucleotide exchange factor activating the small GTPases Rag. Activated Ragulator and Rag GTPases function as a scaffold recruiting mTORC1 to lysosomes where it is in turn activated. Adapter protein that enhances the efficiency of the MAP k [...] (125 aa) |
| | PRDM1 | PR domain zinc finger protein 1; Transcription factor that mediates a transcriptional program in various innate and adaptive immune tissue-resident lymphocyte T cell types such as tissue-resident memory T (Trm), natural killer (trNK) and natural killer T (NKT) cells and negatively regulates gene expression of proteins that promote the egress of tissue-resident T-cell populations from non-lymphoid organs. Plays a role in the development, retention and long-term establishment of adaptive and innate tissue- resident lymphocyte T cell types in non-lymphoid organs, such as the skin and gut, [...] (825 aa) |
| | VTCN1 | V-set domain-containing T-cell activation inhibitor 1; Negatively regulates T-cell-mediated immune response by inhibiting T-cell activation, proliferation, cytokine production and development of cytotoxicity. When expressed on the cell surface of tumor macrophages, plays an important role, together with regulatory T- cells (Treg), in the suppression of tumor-associated antigen-specific T-cell immunity. Involved in promoting epithelial cell transformation. (282 aa) |
| | RBM15 | RNA-binding protein 15; RNA-binding protein that acts as a key regulator of N6- methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, thereby regulating different processes, such as hematopoietic cell homeostasis, alternative splicing of mRNAs and X chromosome inactivation mediated by Xist RNA. Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6-methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing (By similarity). Plays a key role in m6A methylation, possibly by binding target RNAs and recruiting the WMM [...] (977 aa) |
| | YTHDF1 | YTH domain-containing family protein 1; Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing mRNAs, and promotes mRNA translation efficiency. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Acts as a regulator of mRNA translation efficiency: promotes ribosome loading to m6A-containing mRNAs and interacts with translation initiation factors eIF3 (EIF3A or EIF3B) to facilitate translation initiation. Required to facilitate learning and memory formation in the [...] (559 aa) |
| | RBMX | RNA-binding motif protein, X chromosome, N-terminally processed; RNA-binding protein that plays several role in the regulation of pre- and post-transcriptional processes. Implicated in tissue- specific regulation of gene transcription and alternative splicing of several pre-mRNAs. Binds to and stimulates transcription from the tumor suppressor TXNIP gene promoter; may thus be involved in tumor suppression. When associated with SAFB, binds to and stimulates transcription from the SREBF1 promoter. Associates with nascent mRNAs transcribed by RNA polymerase II. Component of the suprasplic [...] (391 aa) |
| | YBX1 | Y-box-binding protein 1; DNA- and RNA-binding protein involved in various processes, such as translational repression, RNA stabilization, mRNA splicing, DNA repair and transcription regulation. Predominantly acts as a RNA-binding protein: binds preferentially to the 5'-[CU]CUGCG-3' RNA motif and specifically recognizes mRNA transcripts modified by C5-methylcytosine (m5C). Promotes mRNA stabilization: acts by binding to m5C- containing mRNAs and recruiting the mRNA stability maintainer ELAVL1, thereby preventing mRNA decay. Component of the CRD-mediated complex that promotes MYC mRNA st [...] (324 aa) |
| | TRUB2 | Mitochondrial mRNA pseudouridine synthase TRUB2; Minor enzyme contributing to the isomerization of uridine to pseudouridine (pseudouridylation) of specific mitochondrial mRNAs (mt- mRNAs) such as COXI and COXIII mt-mRNAs. As a component of a functional protein-RNA module, consisting of RCC1L, NGRN, RPUSD3, RPUSD4, TRUB2, FASTKD2 and 16S mitochondrial ribosomal RNA (16S mt-rRNA), controls 16S mt-rRNA abundance and is required for intra-mitochondrial translation. (331 aa) |
| | SRC | Proto-oncogene tyrosine-protein kinase Src; Non-receptor protein tyrosine kinase which is activated following engagement of many different classes of cellular receptors including immune response receptors, integrins and other adhesion receptors, receptor protein tyrosine kinases, G protein-coupled receptors as well as cytokine receptors. Participates in signaling pathways that control a diverse spectrum of biological activities including gene transcription, immune response, cell adhesion, cell cycle progression, apoptosis, migration, and transformation. Due to functional redundancy bet [...] (536 aa) |
| | TET1 | Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET1; Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in active DNA demethylation. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation. Methylation at the C5 position of cytosine bases is an epigenetic modification of the mammalian genome which plays an important role in transcription [...] (2136 aa) |
| | DKK1 | Dickkopf-related protein 1; Antagonizes canonical Wnt signaling by inhibiting LRP5/6 interaction with Wnt and by forming a ternary complex with the transmembrane protein KREMEN that promotes internalization of LRP5/6. DKKs play an important role in vertebrate development, where they locally inhibit Wnt regulated processes such as antero-posterior axial patterning, limb development, somitogenesis and eye formation. In the adult, Dkks are implicated in bone formation and bone disease, cancer and Alzheimer disease. Inhibits the pro-apoptotic function of KREMEN1 in a Wnt-independent manner [...] (266 aa) |
| | DDAH2 | N(G),N(G)-dimethylarginine dimethylaminohydrolase 2; Hydrolyzes N(G),N(G)-dimethyl-L-arginine (ADMA) and N(G)- monomethyl-L-arginine (MMA) which act as inhibitors of NOS. Has therefore a role in the regulation of nitric oxide generation. (285 aa) |
| | PUS1 | tRNA pseudouridine synthase A; Converts specific uridines to PSI in a number of tRNA substrates. Acts on positions 27/28 in the anticodon stem and also positions 34 and 36 in the anticodon of an intron containing tRNA. Involved in regulation of nuclear receptor activity through pseudouridylation of SRA1 RNA; Belongs to the tRNA pseudouridine synthase TruA family. (427 aa) |
| | NSUN6 | tRNA (cytosine(72)-C(5))-methyltransferase NSUN6; S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C5 position of cytosine 72 in tRNA(Thr)(TGT) and tRNA(Cys)(GCA). In vitro also methylates tRNA(Thr)(AGT). Methylation requires, in the acceptor stem region, the presence of the 3'-CCA terminus, the target site C72, the discriminator base U73, and the second and third base pairs (2:71 and 3:70) in the tRNA substrates ; Belongs to the class I-like SAM-binding methyltransferase superfamily. RsmB/NOP family. (469 aa) |
| | TRDMT1 | tRNA (cytosine(38)-C(5))-methyltransferase; Specifically methylates cytosine 38 in the anticodon loop of tRNA(Asp). (391 aa) |
| | IRF4 | Interferon regulatory factor 4; Transcriptional activator. Binds to the interferon-stimulated response element (ISRE) of the MHC class I promoter. Binds the immunoglobulin lambda light chain enhancer, together with PU.1. Probably plays a role in ISRE-targeted signal transduction mechanisms specific to lymphoid cells. Involved in CD8(+) dendritic cell differentiation by forming a complex with the BATF-JUNB heterodimer in immune cells, leading to recognition of AICE sequence (5'-TGAnTCA/GAAA- 3'), an immune-specific regulatory element, followed by cooperative binding of BATF and IRF4 and [...] (451 aa) |
| | CD274 | Programmed cell death 1 ligand 1; Plays a critical role in induction and maintenance of immune tolerance to self. As a ligand for the inhibitory receptor PDCD1/PD-1, modulates the activation threshold of T-cells and limits T-cell effector response. Through a yet unknown activating receptor, may costimulate T-cell subsets that predominantly produce interleukin-10 (IL10). (290 aa) |
| | JAK2 | Tyrosine-protein kinase JAK2; Non-receptor tyrosine kinase involved in various processes such as cell growth, development, differentiation or histone modifications. Mediates essential signaling events in both innate and adaptive immunity. In the cytoplasm, plays a pivotal role in signal transduction via its association with type I receptors such as growth hormone (GHR), prolactin (PRLR), leptin (LEPR), erythropoietin (EPOR), thrombopoietin (THPO); or type II receptors including IFN-alpha, IFN- beta, IFN-gamma and multiple interleukins. Following ligand-binding to cell surface receptors [...] (1132 aa) |
| | NSUN7 | Putative methyltransferase NSUN7; May have S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyl-transferase activity; Belongs to the class I-like SAM-binding methyltransferase superfamily. RsmB/NOP family. (718 aa) |
| | NOP2 | Probable 28S rRNA (cytosine(4447)-C(5))-methyltransferase; Involved in ribosomal large subunit assembly. S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that specifically methylates the C(5) position of cytosine 4447 in 28S rRNA (Probable). May play a role in the regulation of the cell cycle and the increased nucleolar activity that is associated with the cell proliferation (Probable); Belongs to the class I-like SAM-binding methyltransferase superfamily. RsmB/NOP family. (845 aa) |
| | METTL14 | N6-adenosine-methyltransferase non-catalytic subunit; The METTL3-METTL14 heterodimer forms a N6-methyltransferase complex that methylates adenosine residues at the N(6) position of some mRNAs and regulates the circadian clock, differentiation of embryonic stem cells and cortical neurogenesis. In the heterodimer formed with METTL3, METTL14 constitutes the RNA-binding scaffold that recognizes the substrate rather than the catalytic core. N6-methyladenosine (m6A), which takes place at the 5'-[AG]GAC-3' consensus sites of some mRNAs, plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. M6A acts [...] (456 aa) |
| | TRMT61A | tRNA (adenine(58)-N(1))-methyltransferase catalytic subunit TRMT61A; Catalytic subunit of tRNA (adenine-N(1)-)-methyltransferase, which catalyzes the formation of N(1)-methyladenine at position 58 (m1A58) in initiator methionyl-tRNA. Catalytic subunit of mRNA N(1)-methyltransferase complex, which mediates methylation of adenosine residues at the N(1) position of a small subset of mRNAs: N(1) methylation takes place in tRNA T-loop-like structures of mRNAs and is only present at low stoichiometries ; Belongs to the class I-like SAM-binding methyltransferase superfamily. TRM61 family. (289 aa) |
| | THUMPD1 | THUMP domain-containing protein 1; Functions as a tRNA-binding adapter to mediate NAT10- dependent tRNA acetylation. (353 aa) |
| | NFIX | Nuclear factor 1 X-type; Recognizes and binds the palindromic sequence 5'- TTGGCNNNNNGCCAA-3' present in viral and cellular promoters and in the origin of replication of adenovirus type 2. These proteins are individually capable of activating transcription and replication; Belongs to the CTF/NF-I family. (441 aa) |
| | PDCD1LG2 | Programmed cell death 1 ligand 2; Involved in the costimulatory signal, essential for T-cell proliferation and IFNG production in a PDCD1-independent manner. Interaction with PDCD1 inhibits T-cell proliferation by blocking cell cycle progression and cytokine production (By similarity). (273 aa) |
| | BCL2 | Apoptosis regulator Bcl-2; Suppresses apoptosis in a variety of cell systems including factor-dependent lymphohematopoietic and neural cells. Regulates cell death by controlling the mitochondrial membrane permeability. Appears to function in a feedback loop system with caspases. Inhibits caspase activity either by preventing the release of cytochrome c from the mitochondria and/or by binding to the apoptosis-activating factor (APAF-1). May attenuate inflammation by impairing NLRP1-inflammasome activation, hence CASP1 activation and IL1B release. (239 aa) |
| | WDR4 | tRNA (guanine-N(7)-)-methyltransferase non-catalytic subunit WDR4; Non-catalytic component of a methyltransferase complex required for the formation of N(7)-methylguanine in a subset of RNA species, such as tRNAs, mRNAs and microRNAs (miRNAs). In the methyltransferase complex, it is required to stabilize and induce conformational changes of the catalytic subunit. Required for the formation of N(7)-methylguanine at position 46 (m7G46) in tRNA. Also required for the formation of N(7)-methylguanine at internal sites in a subset of mRNAs. Also required for methylation of a specific subset [...] (412 aa) |
| | ALKBH5 | RNA demethylase ALKBH5; Dioxygenase that demethylates RNA by oxidative demethylation: specifically demethylates N(6)-methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes. Can also demethylate N(6)-methyladenosine in single- stranded DNA (in vitro). Requires molecular oxygen, alpha-ketoglutarate and iron. Demethylation of m6A mRNA affects mRNA processing and export. Required for the late meiotic and haploid phases of spermatogenesis by mediating m6A demethylation in spermatocytes and round spermatids: m6A demethylation of targe [...] (394 aa) |
| | CD8A | T-cell surface glycoprotein CD8 alpha chain; Integral membrane glycoprotein that plays an essential role in the immune response and serves multiple functions in responses against both external and internal offenses. In T-cells, functions primarily as a coreceptor for MHC class I molecule:peptide complex. The antigens presented by class I peptides are derived from cytosolic proteins while class II derived from extracellular proteins. Interacts simultaneously with the T-cell receptor (TCR) and the MHC class I proteins presented by antigen presenting cells (APCs). In turn, recruits the Sr [...] (235 aa) |
| | TET3 | Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET3; Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in epigenetic chromatin reprogramming in the zygote following fertilization. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5- carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation (By similarity). Selectively binds to the promoter region of target genes and contributes to regulate [...] (1795 aa) |
| | CHFR | E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase CHFR; E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that functions in the antephase checkpoint by actively delaying passage into mitosis in response to microtubule poisons. Acts in early prophase before chromosome condensation, when the centrosome move apart from each other along the periphery of the nucleus. Probably involved in signaling the presence of mitotic stress caused by microtubule poisons by mediating the 'Lys- 48'-linked ubiquitination of target proteins, leading to their degradation by the proteasome. Promotes the ubiquitination and subsequent degradation of AURK [...] (664 aa) |
| | TNF | Tumor necrosis factor, membrane form; Cytokine that binds to TNFRSF1A/TNFR1 and TNFRSF1B/TNFBR. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and can induce cell death of certain tumor cell lines. It is potent pyrogen causing fever by direct action or by stimulation of interleukin-1 secretion and is implicated in the induction of cachexia, Under certain conditions it can stimulate cell proliferation and induce cell differentiation. Impairs regulatory T- cells (Treg) function in individuals with rheumatoid arthritis via FOXP3 dephosphorylation. Upregulates the expression of protein phosphatase 1 [...] (233 aa) |
| | ESR1 | Estrogen receptor; Nuclear hormone receptor. The steroid hormones and their receptors are involved in the regulation of eukaryotic gene expression and affect cellular proliferation and differentiation in target tissues. Ligand-dependent nuclear transactivation involves either direct homodimer binding to a palindromic estrogen response element (ERE) sequence or association with other DNA-binding transcription factors, such as AP-1/c-Jun, c-Fos, ATF-2, Sp1 and Sp3, to mediate ERE- independent signaling. Ligand binding induces a conformational change allowing subsequent or combinatorial a [...] (595 aa) |
| | IGF2BP2 | Insulin-like growth factor 2 mRNA-binding protein 2; RNA-binding factor that recruits target transcripts to cytoplasmic protein-RNA complexes (mRNPs). This transcript 'caging' into mRNPs allows mRNA transport and transient storage. It also modulates the rate and location at which target transcripts encounter the translational apparatus and shields them from endonuclease attacks or microRNA-mediated degradation (By similarity). Binds to the 5'-UTR of the insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2) mRNAs. Binding is isoform- specific. Binds to beta-actin/ACTB and MYC transcripts. (605 aa) |
| | PUS7 | Pseudouridylate synthase 7 homolog; Pseudouridylate synthase that catalyzes pseudouridylation of RNAs. Acts as a regulator of protein synthesis in embryonic stem cells by mediating pseudouridylation of RNA fragments derived from tRNAs (tRFs): pseudouridylated tRFs inhibit translation by targeting the translation initiation complex. Also catalyzes pseudouridylation of mRNAs: mediates pseudouridylation of mRNAs with the consensus sequence 5'-UGUAG-3'. In addition to mRNAs and tRNAs, binds other types of RNAs, such as snRNAs, Y RNAs and vault RNAs, suggesting that it can catalyze pseudour [...] (661 aa) |
| | FTO | Alpha-ketoglutarate-dependent dioxygenase FTO; RNA demethylase that mediates oxidative demethylation of different RNA species, such as mRNAs, tRNAs and snRNAs, and acts as a regulator of fat mass, adipogenesis and energy homeostasis. Specifically demethylates N(6)- methyladenosine (m6A) RNA, the most prevalent internal modification of messenger RNA (mRNA) in higher eukaryotes. M6A demethylation by FTO affects mRNA expression and stability. Also able to demethylate m6A in U6 small nuclear RNA (snRNA). Mediates demethylation of N(6),2'-O- dimethyladenosine cap (m6A(m)), by demethylating [...] (505 aa) |
| | BRCA1 | Breast cancer type 1 susceptibility protein; E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase that specifically mediates the formation of 'Lys-6'-linked polyubiquitin chains and plays a central role in DNA repair by facilitating cellular responses to DNA damage. It is unclear whether it also mediates the formation of other types of polyubiquitin chains. The E3 ubiquitin-protein ligase activity is required for its tumor suppressor function. The BRCA1-BARD1 heterodimer coordinates a diverse range of cellular pathways such as DNA damage repair, ubiquitination and transcriptional regulation to maintain genomic [...] (1884 aa) |
| | BRAF | Serine/threonine-protein kinase B-raf; Protein kinase involved in the transduction of mitogenic signals from the cell membrane to the nucleus (Probable). Phosphorylates MAP2K1, and thereby activates the MAP kinase signal transduction pathway. May play a role in the postsynaptic responses of hippocampal neurons ; Belongs to the protein kinase superfamily. TKL Ser/Thr protein kinase family. RAF subfamily. (767 aa) |
| | NSUN4 | 5-methylcytosine rRNA methyltransferase NSUN4; Involved in mitochondrial ribosome assembly. 5-methylcytosine rRNA methyltransferase that probably is involved in mitochondrial ribosome small subunit (SSU) maturation by methylation of mitochondrial 12S rRNA; the function is independent of MTERFD2/MTERF4 and assembled mitochondrial ribosome large subunit (LSU). Targeted to LSU by MTERFD2/MTERF4 and probably is involved in a final step in ribosome biogenesis to ensure that SSU and LSU are assembled. In vitro can methylate 16S rRNA of the LSU; the methylation is enhanced by MTERFD/MTERF4; B [...] (384 aa) |
| | ALYREF | THO complex subunit 4; Export adapter involved in nuclear export of spliced and unspliced mRNA. Binds mRNA which is thought to be transferred to the NXF1-NXT1 heterodimer for export (TAP/NFX1 pathway). Component of the TREX complex which is thought to couple mRNA transcription, processing and nuclear export, and specifically associates with spliced mRNA and not with unspliced pre-mRNA. TREX is recruited to spliced mRNAs by a transcription-independent mechanism, binds to mRNA upstream of the exon-junction complex (EJC) and is recruited in a splicing- and cap-dependent manner to a region [...] (264 aa) |
| | LYN | Tyrosine-protein kinase Lyn; Non-receptor tyrosine-protein kinase that transmits signals from cell surface receptors and plays an important role in the regulation of innate and adaptive immune responses, hematopoiesis, responses to growth factors and cytokines, integrin signaling, but also responses to DNA damage and genotoxic agents. Functions primarily as negative regulator, but can also function as activator, depending on the context. Required for the initiation of the B-cell response, but also for its down-regulation and termination. Plays an important role in the regulation of B-c [...] (512 aa) |
| | MEX3A | RNA-binding protein MEX3A; RNA binding protein, may be involved in post-transcriptional regulatory mechanisms. (520 aa) |
| | TET2 | Methylcytosine dioxygenase TET2; Dioxygenase that catalyzes the conversion of the modified genomic base 5-methylcytosine (5mC) into 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC) and plays a key role in active DNA demethylation. Has a preference for 5-hydroxymethylcytosine in CpG motifs. Also mediates subsequent conversion of 5hmC into 5-formylcytosine (5fC), and conversion of 5fC to 5-carboxylcytosine (5caC). Conversion of 5mC into 5hmC, 5fC and 5caC probably constitutes the first step in cytosine demethylation. Methylation at the C5 position of cytosine bases is an epigenetic modification of the mam [...] (2002 aa) |
| | OTUB1 | Ubiquitin thioesterase OTUB1; Hydrolase that can specifically remove 'Lys-48'-linked conjugated ubiquitin from proteins and plays an important regulatory role at the level of protein turnover by preventing degradation. Regulator of T-cell anergy, a phenomenon that occurs when T-cells are rendered unresponsive to antigen rechallenge and no longer respond to their cognate antigen. Acts via its interaction with RNF128/GRAIL, a crucial inductor of CD4 T-cell anergy. Isoform 1 destabilizes RNF128, leading to prevent anergy. In contrast, isoform 2 stabilizes RNF128 and promotes anergy. Surpr [...] (271 aa) |
| | YTHDF2 | YTH domain-containing family protein 2; Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing RNAs, and regulates mRNA stability. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in mRNA stability and processing. Acts as a regulator of mRNA stability by promoting degradation of m6A-containing mRNAs via interaction with the CCR4-NOT and ribonuclease P/MRP complexes, depending on the context. M6A-containing mRNAs containing a binding site for RIDA/HRSP12 (5'-GGUUC-3') are preferentially degraded by endoribonucleolytic cle [...] (579 aa) |
| | METTL7A | Methyltransferase-like protein 7A; Probable methyltransferase. (244 aa) |
| | HNRNPC | Heterogeneous nuclear ribonucleoproteins C1/C2; Binds pre-mRNA and nucleates the assembly of 40S hnRNP particles. Interacts with poly-U tracts in the 3'-UTR or 5'-UTR of mRNA and modulates the stability and the level of translation of bound mRNA molecules. Single HNRNPC tetramers bind 230-240 nucleotides. Trimers of HNRNPC tetramers bind 700 nucleotides. May play a role in the early steps of spliceosome assembly and pre-mRNA splicing. N6-methyladenosine (m6A) has been shown to alter the local structure in mRNAs and long non-coding RNAs (lncRNAs) via a mechanism named 'm(6)A-switch', fa [...] (306 aa) |
| | AKT1 | RAC-alpha serine/threonine-protein kinase; AKT1 is one of 3 closely related serine/threonine-protein kinases (AKT1, AKT2 and AKT3) called the AKT kinase, and which regulate many processes including metabolism, proliferation, cell survival, growth and angiogenesis. This is mediated through serine and/or threonine phosphorylation of a range of downstream substrates. Over 100 substrate candidates have been reported so far, but for most of them, no isoform specificity has been reported. AKT is responsible of the regulation of glucose uptake by mediating insulin-induced translocation of the [...] (480 aa) |
| | RBM15B | Putative RNA-binding protein 15B; RNA-binding protein that acts as a key regulator of N6- methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, thereby regulating different processes, such as alternative splicing of mRNAs and X chromosome inactivation mediated by Xist RNA. Associated component of the WMM complex, a complex that mediates N6- methyladenosine (m6A) methylation of RNAs, a modification that plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing and RNA processing. Plays a key role in m6A methylation, possibly by binding target RNAs and recruiting the WMM complex. Involved in random X inactiv [...] (890 aa) |
| | METTL4 | N(6)-adenine-specific DNA methyltransferase METTL4; N(6)-adenine-specific DNA methyltransferase that mediates methylation of DNA on the 6th position of adenine (N(6)- methyladenosine) and is required to regulate Polycomb silencing. N(6)- methyladenosine deposition by METTL4 triggers ubiquitination and degradation of sensor proteins ASXL1 and MPND, leading to inactivation of the PR-DUB complex and subsequent preservation of Polycomb silencing; Belongs to the MT-A70-like family. (472 aa) |
| | YTHDC1 | YTH domain-containing protein 1; Regulator of alternative splicing that specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)-containing RNAs. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non- coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Acts as a key regulator of exon-inclusion or exon-skipping during alternative splicing via interaction with mRNA splicing factors SRSF3 and SRSF10. Specifically binds m6A-containing mRNAs and promotes recruitment of SRSF3 to its mRNA-binding elements adjacent to m6A sites, leading [...] (735 aa) |
| | RNMT | mRNA cap guanine-N7 methyltransferase; Catalytic subunit of the mRNA-capping methyltransferase RNMT:RAMAC complex that methylates the N7 position of the added guanosine to the 5'-cap structure of mRNAs. Binds RNA containing 5'-terminal GpppC. (504 aa) |
| | YTHDF3 | YTH domain-containing family protein 3; Specifically recognizes and binds N6-methyladenosine (m6A)- containing RNAs and promotes RNA translation efficiency. M6A is a modification present at internal sites of mRNAs and some non-coding RNAs and plays a role in the efficiency of mRNA splicing, processing and stability. Shares m6A-containing mRNAs targets with YTHDF1 and YTHDF2, and regulates different processes depending on the context. Facilitates the translation of targeted mRNAs in cooperation with YTHDF1 by binding to m6A-containing mRNAs and interacting with 40S and 60S ribosome subu [...] (588 aa) |
| | METTL8 | mRNA N(3)-methylcytidine methyltransferase METTL8; S-adenosyl-L-methionine-dependent methyltransferase that mediates N(3)-methylcytidine modification of mRNAs. (407 aa) |
| | PTPN11 | Tyrosine-protein phosphatase non-receptor type 11; Acts downstream of various receptor and cytoplasmic protein tyrosine kinases to participate in the signal transduction from the cell surface to the nucleus. Positively regulates MAPK signal transduction pathway. Dephosphorylates GAB1, ARHGAP35 and EGFR. Dephosphorylates ROCK2 at 'Tyr-722' resulting in stimulatation of its RhoA binding activity. Dephosphorylates CDC73. (597 aa) |
| | CTNNB1 | Catenin beta-1; Key downstream component of the canonical Wnt signaling pathway. In the absence of Wnt, forms a complex with AXIN1, AXIN2, APC, CSNK1A1 and GSK3B that promotes phosphorylation on N-terminal Ser and Thr residues and ubiquitination of CTNNB1 via BTRC and its subsequent degradation by the proteasome. In the presence of Wnt ligand, CTNNB1 is not ubiquitinated and accumulates in the nucleus, where it acts as a coactivator for transcription factors of the TCF/LEF family, leading to activate Wnt responsive genes. Involved in the regulation of cell adhesion, as component of an [...] (781 aa) |
| | CTLA4 | Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte protein 4; Inhibitory receptor acting as a major negative regulator of T-cell responses. The affinity of CTLA4 for its natural B7 family ligands, CD80 and CD86, is considerably stronger than the affinity of their cognate stimulatory coreceptor CD28. (223 aa) |
